CISA Domain 2 — IT Governance and Management (18%, ~27 questions)
What this domain is really testing
Domain 2 tests whether you can tell the difference between governance and management, and whether you instinctively answer at the right organisational level. Every question here is really asking one of four things: (1) who is accountable, (2) does this align with business strategy and risk appetite, (3) is the control designed and documented before it is operated, and (4) what should the auditor do (assess, advise, report — never decide or operate). The domain rewards candidates who know the frameworks (COBIT 2019, ISO/IEC 38500, COSO ERM, NIST CSF, ISO 27001/31000) well enough to recognise vocabulary, but who ultimately choose the answer that puts accountability with the board and business, defines risk ownership with the business, and keeps internal audit independent. Most wrong answers are not factually false — they are true statements placed at the wrong level of the organisation or attributed to the wrong role.
How the exam asks it
Pattern
What it looks like
What ISACA wants
Best/most answer
Four plausible controls, pick the best
The one that addresses root cause and highest risk, aligned to business strategy — not the most technical
Level-matching
"Who should approve/own/decide?"
Governance answers = board, IT steering committee, business owner. Management answers = CIO, IT operations
FIRST / PRIMARY
"What should the auditor do FIRST?"
Understand/review/obtain evidence — never test or recommend before understanding
Role sequencing
"Who should be responsible for…?"
Business owner for risk & data; IT for custody/operations; audit for independent assurance
Derived from and driven by business strategy and objectives
Auditor independence
"The auditor is asked to…"
Accept only advisory/assurance roles; refuse operational ownership and design responsibility
Outsourcing
"IT is fully outsourced; who is accountable?"
The organisation's board/management retains accountability and must govern the vendor
Answer-selection heuristics: if two answers are both technically valid, choose the one that is higher-level in accountability, earlier in the process, or more aligned to business objectives. ISACA almost never chooses "implement a tool" as a first answer.
A. IT Governance
Governance vs Management
Governance
Management
Model
Evaluate, Direct, Monitor (EDM)
Plan, Build, Run, Monitor
Who
Board, board committee, IT steering committee
CEO, CIO, CTO, CISO, IT managers
Question
Are we doing the right things?
Are we doing things right?
COBIT domain
EDM
APO, BAI, DSS, MEA
Output
Direction, risk appetite, accountability
Plans, budgets, projects, operations
Auditor's stance
Does governance exist and function?
Are controls designed and operating effectively?
Governance is the board's job and cannot be delegated — it can be assigned to a committee but accountability remains with the board.
ISO/IEC 38500 = corporate governance of IT. EDM = Evaluate, Direct, Monitor is its core model.
Outsourcing does not transfer accountability. Even fully outsourced IT stays on the board's risk register; the organisation must retain governance, contract management, and right-to-audit.
Goals cascade: Stakeholder needs → Enterprise goals → Alignment goals → Governance/management objectives → Components. This is the exam's favourite way to test "why does IT exist?" — IT goals derive from enterprise goals, which derive from stakeholder needs.
Capability and maturity
Concept
Key facts
Capability levels 0–5 (COBIT process capability)
0 Incomplete, 1 Performed, 2 Managed, 3 Established, 4 Predictable, 5 Optimising — CMMI-style, assessed per process
Process attributes
Each level has process attributes (PA) that must be rated largely/fully achieved to claim the level
Maturity models
Enterprise-wide "as-is vs to-be" view; used to set improvement roadmaps
RACI
Responsible (does), Accountable (owns, one only), Consulted, Informed — used to define roles in processes
Rating scale
N (Not achieved) / P (Partially) / L (Largely) / F (Fully)
IT strategy and organisational structure
IT strategy must be derived from business strategy — never the reverse. Review the business strategy first, then assess whether IT strategy supports it.
IT steering committee: senior business + IT representation; approves IT strategy, prioritises projects, allocates resources, resolves conflicts, monitors performance. Its value is business representation, not technical depth. If the exam asks who prioritises competing IT projects from a business perspective, the answer is the steering committee.
Board's role: sets risk appetite, approves strategy, ensures IT risk is managed, receives reporting. The board does not approve individual projects or select technology.
CIO — IT strategy, delivery, alignment with business; CTO — technology direction/architecture/infrastructure; CISO — security programme, policy, risk, incident reporting; DPO — privacy compliance, DPIA, regulator contact, independent of IT where possible; Data owner — business accountability for data; Data steward/custodian — day-to-day operational data management.
Three lines of defence
Line
Who
Role
1st
Management and operations
Own and manage risk; operate controls day to day
2nd
Risk management and compliance
Frameworks, oversight, monitoring, guidance — independent of 1st line
3rd
Internal audit
Independent assurance to the board/audit committee over 1st and 2nd lines
Why audit must be 3rd line: independence and objectivity. If audit owned or designed controls, it would be auditing its own work — a self-review threat.
Internal audit reports functionally to the audit committee/board so that findings cannot be suppressed by the management it audits.
Policies, standards, procedures, guidelines
Document
Nature
Level
Approved by
Answers
Policy
Mandatory, high-level, states intent and "why"
Business/board
Board or executive management (business-level)
What must be achieved and why
Standard
Mandatory, specific, measurable rules
Tactical/IT
Senior IT management, aligned to policy
What specific config/technology is required
Procedure
Mandatory step-by-step instructions
Operational
IT operations management
Who does what, when, how
Guideline
Recommended, discretionary
Any
Management
Suggested good practice
Hierarchy: Policy → Standard → Procedure, with guidelines as advisory alongside.
Policies are business documents because they express business intent, risk appetite and compliance obligations — that is also why they must be approved above IT.
Every policy needs an owner, review cycle, exception process and communication/training plan — an uncommunicated policy provides no control.
Enterprise architecture (EA)
Framework
Structure
TOGAF ADM
Preliminary Phase + Phases A (Architecture Vision), B (Business), C (Information Systems: Data + Application), D (Technology), E (Opportunities & Solutions), F (Migration Planning), G (Implementation Governance), H (Architecture Change Management); Requirements Management at the centre of the cycle
An auditor reviewing EA asks: does it exist, does it link to strategy, does it govern project decisions, is it actually used?
TOGAF ADM is iterative — Phase H feeds back to Phase A; Requirements Management applies throughout.
Enterprise Risk Management (ERM)
Term
Meaning
Example
Risk appetite
Amount/type of risk the organisation is willing to pursue for value
"We accept medium risk in cloud adoption"
Risk tolerance
Acceptable deviation from appetite — the operating range
"Downtime tolerance ≤ 4 hrs"
Risk capacity
Maximum risk the organisation can bear before failure
Capital/regulatory limit
Inherent risk
Risk before controls
Unmitigated exposure
Residual risk
Risk remaining after controls
What must be compared to appetite
Risk register
Living inventory: risk, owner, likelihood, impact, controls, residual rating, treatment, KRIs, review date
Risk treatment options:Avoid, Mitigate/Reduce, Transfer/Share, Accept. (ISACA also refers to exploit/pursue for opportunity risk.) Terminate/avoid = stop the activity.
Risk acceptance must be by the business owner, of the level owning the risk, formally documented, time-bound and revisited. IT cannot accept business risk. Audit cannot accept risk at all.
The auditor cannot own or accept risk — doing so destroys independence and objectivity. Audit identifies, evaluates and reports.
KRIs vs KPIs vs KGIs:KRI = risk exposure trend, leading/warning ("number of unpatched critical servers"); KPI = performance achieved ("patch compliance %"); KGI = whether the goal was met ("no patch-related breaches this year").
Qualitative risk assessment (expert judgement, likelihood/impact scales, risk matrices) = fast, judgemental, good for governance. Quantitative (ALE = SLE × ARO, Monte Carlo) = monetary, needs reliable data. Use both; quantitative is generally preferred for cost-benefit justification where data exists.
S302 — CEO/CFO certify financial reports and disclosure controls; S404 — management assesses and external auditor attests to ICFR; S906 — criminal certification of reports. IT relevance = ITGCs (change, access, operations) supporting financial reporting
GDPR (EU)
Regulation
Lawful basis (consent, contract, legal obligation, vital interests, public task, legitimate interests); data subject rights (access, rectification, erasure, restriction, portability, objection); DPO required in specified cases; DPIA for high-risk processing; 72-hour breach notification to the supervisory authority; extraterritorial scope; controller decides purposes/means, processor acts on instruction; fines up to EUR 20 million or 4% of global annual turnover, whichever is higher
HIPAA (US)
Law
Protected health information; Privacy, Security and Breach Notification Rules
GLBA (US)
Law
Financial institutions; safeguards for non-public personal information
PCI DSS
Contractual standard, not law
12 requirements; applies to the cardholder data environment (CDE); enforced by card brands/acquirers through contracts; scope reduction is the cost lever
Basel II / III
Banking regulation
Capital adequacy; operational risk; IT and third-party dependencies matter to operational risk
FERC / NERC CIP
Regulation (US critical infrastructure)
Mandatory reliability and cyber security standards for the bulk electric system
PIPL (China)
Law
Personal Information Protection Law — consent, separate consent for sensitive PI, cross-border transfer conditions, security assessment
PDPO (Hong Kong)
Ordinance
Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (Cap. 486) — 6 Data Protection Principles: (1) lawful/fair collection and purpose limitation; (2) accuracy, retention and security during retention; (3) use limited to the stated purpose or a directly related purpose unless consented; (4) security against unauthorised/accidental access, processing, erasure, loss or use; (5) openness — policy and practices published; (6) data subject access and correction rights. Regulator = PCPD. Cross-border transfer restricted under s.33 (not yet in force)
ISO/IEC 27001
Standard (certifiable)
ISMS requirements; Annex A controls; risk-based; certification of the management system
ISO/IEC 27002
Standard (guidance)
Code of practice — control guidance; not certifiable
ISO/IEC 27701
Standard
Privacy information management extension to 27001/27002; PII controller/processor guidance
ISO/IEC 27017 / 27018
Standard
Cloud security controls / protection of PII in public clouds
Internal control over reporting; 5 components, 17 principles
ITIL 4
Best practice
Service management; service value system, 4 dimensions, practices (incl. incident, problem, change enablement)
ISO/IEC 20000
Standard (certifiable)
IT service management requirements — the certifiable counterpart to ITIL
ISO 22301
Standard (certifiable)
Business continuity management system
ISO 31000
Standard (guidance)
Risk management — principles and process
ISO 9001
Standard (certifiable)
Quality management system
Regulations are mandatory and externally enforceable; standards may be voluntary unless made mandatory by contract, regulation or law. PCI DSS is the classic example of contractual compulsion.
An auditor tests compliance with the applicable law in each jurisdiction where the organisation operates or processes data — not just where it is headquartered.
Data privacy programmes and principles
Core privacy principles to memorise: notice/transparency, choice/consent, purpose limitation, data minimisation, accuracy, storage limitation, security, accountability, access/participation, transfer limitation.
Privacy by design and default — build privacy in at design time, not as an afterthought.
DPIA — required for high-risk processing; identifies risks and mitigations before implementation. The auditor reviews whether DPIA was performed and whether recommendations were actioned.
Breach notification — regulatory and contractual deadlines (GDPR: 72 hours to the authority, and to data subjects without undue delay where high risk).
Data subject access requests (DSAR) — the organisation needs a tracked, time-bound process; auditors test completeness and timeliness.
Privacy programme components: governance/DPO, policies, data inventory and mapping, classification, consent management, third-party/processor management, training, monitoring, incident response, breach reporting.
Data governance and classification
Role
Accountability
Data owner
Business manager accountable for a data domain: classification, access approval, quality, retention, use
Custody (technical safekeeping, availability, backup) — not the owner
Data classification levels (typical): Public → Internal → Confidential → Restricted. The classification scheme must be approved by the business and drive the control baseline.
Why classification drives the control baseline: controls (encryption, access rights, retention, handling, sharing) are selected according to sensitivity — so misclassification is the root-cause finding, not the missing control.
Data quality dimensions: accuracy, completeness, timeliness, validity, uniqueness, consistency. Poor master data causes systemic reporting errors.
Metadata = data about data (definitions, lineage, ownership) — needed for consistent reporting and auditability.
Master data management (MDM) = single authoritative source for core entities (customer, product, vendor, employee).
Data lifecycle: create/acquire → store → use/share → archive → dispose. Retention schedule must reflect legal, regulatory and business requirements; disposal must be verifiable (certificates of destruction, secure wipe).
Data sovereignty = data is subject to the laws of the jurisdiction where it resides; cross-border transfer requires a lawful transfer mechanism (adequacy, contractual clauses, consent, security assessment), and cloud location must be contractually known.
Privacy/records requirements can conflict across jurisdictions — resolve via a documented legal review and a transfer mechanism, not by ignoring one.
Human resources: hiring with background screening proportional to role sensitivity, defined competency requirements, continuous training, succession planning, and documented job descriptions.
Segregation of duties (SoD): no single person controls all stages of a transaction or process (authorisation, custody, recording, reconciliation). It is a preventive control. Where SoD cannot be achieved, use compensating controls (supervisory review, monitoring, dual control).
Mandatory vacation and job rotation:detective anti-fraud controls. An employee who must take leave and hand over duties cannot indefinitely conceal a fraud; rotation surfaces irregularities. They are detective because they reveal concealment after it occurs — the exam frequently tests this classification.
Key principle: core/strategic competencies and accountability (governance, risk, data ownership, contract management) generally should not be outsourced.
IT vendor management
Stage
Key activities
Selection
Business case, requirements, due diligence (financial stability, reputation, security, compliance, references, subcontractors)
SLAs, KPIs, obligations, liability, indemnity, data protection, confidentiality, subcontractor approval, right to audit, escrow, termination and exit
Onboarding
Transition plan, security assessment, data transfer, access provisioning
Monitoring
Performance against SLA, service reviews, issue management, change control, re-assessment of risk
Termination/exit
Data return and verified deletion, knowledge transfer, source code escrow release, transition assistance
SLA vs OLA vs UC:SLA = agreement with the customer defining service and targets; OLA = internal agreement between internal teams supporting the SLA; UC = underpinning contract with an external supplier supporting the SLA.
Right to audit clause is essential: without it the organisation cannot obtain assurance over the vendor.
Third-party assurance reports:
Report
Covers
Type 1 vs Type 2
SOC 1
Controls relevant to financial reporting (ICFR)
Type 1 = design at a point in time; Type 2 = design and operating effectiveness over a period
When relying on a SOC report, check: period covered (does it cover the audited period?), scope (does it include the specific system/process?), opinion type (unqualified/qualified), complementary user entity controls (CUECs) that the organisation must implement, and subservice organisations.
Fourth-party / subprocessor risk: the vendor's own suppliers create inherited risk — flow-down requirements, subcontractor disclosure and approval.
Why the auditor reviews the contract rather than re-performing the vendor's audit: the contracting organisation relies on the vendor's independent assurance; the organisation's own control is contract management and assurance evaluation. Audit verifies that the contract contains the required clauses, that assurance reports were obtained and reviewed, and that CUECs were implemented — re-performing the vendor's testing exceeds scope and duplicates assurance.
IT performance monitoring and reporting
Metrics must be tied to business objectives — otherwise they measure activity, not value.
Leading indicators predict (e.g., % staff trained, mean time to patch); lagging indicators report outcomes (e.g., incidents in the period, availability achieved).
Balanced scorecard perspectives: Financial, Customer, Internal process, Learning & growth. The IT scorecard translates these into IT measures including contribution to business value.
Dashboards should be role-appropriate: board wants risk, value, and trend; IT management wants operational detail.
Good metrics are SMART, few, stable, and comparable over time; gaming risk arises if metrics drive rewards without quality checks.
Quality assurance and quality management
Quality assurance (QA) = process-oriented, preventive, builds quality into how work is done. Quality control (QC) = product/outcome-oriented, detective, inspects and tests deliverables.
PDCA (Plan-Do-Check-Act) = the continuous improvement cycle underlying ISO 9001, ISO 20000 and ISO 27001.
ISO 9001 = quality management system; ISO 20000 = IT service management; CMMI maturity levels 1–5: 1 Initial, 2 Managed, 3 Defined, 4 Quantitatively Managed, 5 Optimising.
Six Sigma — data-driven defect reduction (DMAIC: Define, Measure, Analyse, Improve, Control); targets very low defect rates.
Investment logic: prevention and appraisal reduce internal and especially external failure costs — and external failure is the most expensive, which is why ISACA prefers prevention.
TRAPS
Level mismatch. Governance answers = board, audit committee, IT steering committee. Management answers = CIO, CISO, IT managers. Read the verb: "approve strategy / set risk appetite / prioritise" = governance; "implement / operate / monitor" = management.
The auditor advises and reports — never decides, designs or operates. Any answer where the auditor "approves", "implements", "owns the risk", "selects the vendor" or "designs the control" is wrong.
Risk is owned by the business. Not by audit, not by IT. If the question asks who accepts a residual risk, the answer is the business process owner, documented and formal.
Governance ≠ management in COBIT. Only EDM is governance. APO/BAI/DSS/MEA are management domains — a question about "which domain" is often decided by this single distinction.
Outsourcing never transfers accountability. The board still governs; the organisation still owns the risk and needs right-to-audit and exit provisions.
Policy vs procedure. Policy = mandatory, business-level, states intent, approved above IT. Procedure = mandatory, step-by-step, operational. If the question mentions "who approves the policy", prefer the business/board level.
Guidelines are not mandatory — an answer that treats a guideline as enforceable, or that cites "breach of guideline" as a finding, is usually wrong.
Mandatory vacation and job rotation are detective, not preventive. SoD and access controls are preventive.
SOC reports: Type 2 > Type 1 for reliance (operating effectiveness over a period). Always check period covered, scope and CUECs; a clean opinion outside the audit period proves nothing.
Do not re-perform the vendor's audit. Review the contract, obtain and evaluate the vendor's assurance report, verify CUECs. Testing the vendor yourself is not the organisation's control.
PCI DSS is contractual, not a law. If an answer says "PCI compliance is a legal requirement", it is wrong.
Classification drives controls. When asked what should determine the control baseline for data, the answer is the business-approved classification, not IT's technical preference.
GDPR fines: up to EUR 20 million or 4% of total worldwide annual turnover, whichever is higher — do not confuse the two tiers.
Risk appetite vs tolerance: appetite = willing to pursue; tolerance = acceptable deviation. A question about "how much deviation is acceptable" is tolerance.
Requirement comes before design. If asked what an auditor does FIRST when reviewing a new system, the answer is to verify that business requirements were defined and aligned to strategy — not to test controls.
COSO ERM 2017 (5 components, 20 principles, risk) ≠ COSO ICIF 2013 (5 components, 17 principles, internal control over reporting). Keep them separate.
EA is business-driven and owned above IT. An EA "owned by the infrastructure team" is a finding.
Third line of defence = internal audit only. Risk/compliance is 2nd line. Don't place internal audit in the 2nd line because it "monitors".
Reporting to the audit committee, not to the CIO, protects audit independence — the reverse structure is a significant finding.
Metrics not linked to business objectives are the classic performance-management finding — the problem is alignment, not the reporting tool.
External failure is the most costly category of quality cost — prevention investment is justified on that basis.